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Q.1: The food of hydra consists of-------- ?

  1. Humus
  2. Detritus
  3. Dead microscopic animals
  4. Small crustaceans

D

Q.2: Sebum produced from sebaceous glands in a mammal helps in------ ?

  1. Protection against micro organisms
  2. Temperature regulation
  3. Excretion
  4. All of these

A

Q.3: Keto group is represented as------ ?

  1. CO
  2. C-COO-C
  3. HCOH
  4. HOH

A

Q.4: The trioses which are intermediate in respiration and photosynthesis are-------- ?

  1. Glyceraldehydes
  2. Dihydroxy acetone
  3. Both of these
  4. None of these

C

Q.5: In humans the number of tetrads formed during mitosis is-------- ?

  1. 23
  2. 46
  3. 0
  4. 4

C

Q.6: The red green color blindness is sex linked recessive condition in man. A father with normal vision and a color blind mother world expect to produce ?

  1. Color blind sons and daughter with normal vision
  2. Sons with normal vision and color blind daughters
  3. Color blind sons colour blind daughters and daughters with normal vision
  4. Sons with normal vision colour blind daughter and daughters with normal vision

A

Q.7: The one which is a weed killer is--------- ?

  1. IAA
  2. NAA
  3. 2 4-D
  4. GA

C

Q.8: Which of the following category is most general with its members lest resembling with each other than the other categries-------- ?

  1. Species
  2. Genus
  3. Family
  4. Order

D

Q.9: What is the characteristic feature of consumers ?

  1. Autotroph
  2. Heterotroph
  3. Parasite
  4. Saprophyte

B

Q.10: DNA or RNA of viruses is enclosed in --------- coat ?

  1. Protein
  2. Carbohydrate
  3. Lipid
  4. DNA

A

Q.11: Viruses are ---------- smaller than bacteria ?

  1. 10 – 100 times
  2. 10 – 1000 times
  3. 100 – 1000 times
  4. 1000 – 10000 times

B

Q.12: Bacteriopahage that infect E. coli are called-------- ?

  1. M type
  2. N type
  3. T type
  4. S type

C

Q.13: Which of the following disease results in Paralysis due to viral attack on C.N.S ?

  1. Measles
  2. Herpes simplex
  3. Hepatitis
  4. Polio

D

Q.14: Mastication is carried out by------- ?

  1. Teeth
  2. Tongue
  3. Smooth muscles
  4. All of these

A

Q.15: Puccinia commonly destroys-------- ?

  1. Corn
  2. Tomato
  3. Dodder
  4. Wheat

D

Q.16: Of the following, which one is missing in herbivores------- ?

  1. Premolars
  2. Canines
  3. Incisors
  4. Molars.

B

Q.17: Hunger contractions are ----- contractions ?

  1. Antiperistalsis
  2. Peristalsis
  3. Voluntary
  4. None of these

B

Q.18: Root like structure in saprotrophic fungi are called------ ?

  1. Rhizodis
  2. Haustoria
  3. Hyphae
  4. Constricting rings

A

Q.19: How many species of ascomycota occur in lichen symbiotic association ?

  1. 30%
  2. 40%
  3. 50%
  4. 60%

C

Q.20: Which of the following is called black bread mold ?

  1. Pilobolus
  2. Penicillium
  3. Neurospora
  4. Rhizopus

D

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Q.1: Protein subunits of capsid is called the capsomeres is a characteristic of each virus. Their number in Herpes virus is-------- ?

  1. 100
  2. 152
  3. 162
  4. 172

C

Q.2: Which of the following statement about AIDS is incorrect ?

  1. is a host specific disease
  2. An infected mother cannot pass the virus to her baby.
  3. Results in enlargement of lymph nodes
  4. Can be prevented.

B

Q.3: The agent of controversial nature causing mad cow infection is------- ?

  1. Bacteria
  2. Cowpox Virus
  3. Adenovirus
  4. Prion

D

Q.4: In lysogenic cycle the process of spearation of phage DNA from the hosts chromosome and initiation of lytic cycle is called------- ?

  1. Lysis
  2. Lysogeny
  3. Induction
  4. Adsorption

C

Q.5: Which of the following is an RNA virus ?

  1. Influenza virus
  2. Herpes virus
  3. HBV
  4. Pox virus

A

Q.6: Dipeptides into amino acids are are converted through---------- ?

  1. Amino peptidase
  2. Erypsin
  3. Pepsin
  4. Trypsin

B

Q.7: Puccinia is a parasitic---------- ?

  1. Plant
  2. Fungus
  3. Animal
  4. Algae

B

Q.8: Stunted growth of roots is due to the deficiency of------------in plants ?

  1. Potassium
  2. Magnesium
  3. Phosphorus
  4. Iron.

C

Q.9: Earthworm is an example of --------------feeder ?

  1. Detritus
  2. Fluid
  3. Macrophageus
  4. Filter

A

Q.10: Anus is surrounded by ----- types of muscles ?

  1. 2
  2. 3
  3. 1
  4. 4

A

Q.11: Parasites capable of living independently of its host at times is called as ----------- parasite ?

  1. Obligate
  2. Strict
  3. Facultative
  4. Endoparasite

C

Q.12: How many species of fungi are known till now ?

  1. 10000
  2. 100000
  3. 10000000
  4. 1000

B

Q.13: How many species of mushrooms are edible ?

  1. 100
  2. 200
  3. 3000
  4. 4000

B

Q.14: Those fungi which can grow only on their living host and cannot be grown on available defined growth culture medium e.g. various mildews and most rust species are called---------- ?

  1. Parasitic fungi
  2. Obligate parasitic fungi
  3. Facultative parasitic fungi
  4. All of these

B

Q.15: Which one of the following is the largest group of fungi ?

  1. Zygomycota
  2. Ascomycota
  3. Basidiomycota
  4. Deuteromycota

B

Q.16: Unicellular fungi which is non-hyphal is-------- ?

  1. Mushroom
  2. Yeast
  3. Penicillium
  4. Mold

B

Q.17: Type of lichen which tightly attaches to rocks is-------- ?

  1. Parmelia
  2. Fruticose
  3. Foliose
  4. Crustose

D

Q.18: In slime molds spores develop into-------- ?

  1. Swarm cells
  2. Biflagellated cells
  3. Amoeboid reproductive cells
  4. All of these

D

Q.19: Of the following which one is not the characteristic of dinoflagellates ?

  1. Most of them are unicellular
  2. They have blooms
  3. Their cells are often covered with shells of interlocking cellulose plates impregnated with calcium
  4. None of these

C

Q.20: Based on molecular data euglenoids are thought to be closely related to--------- ?

  1. Dinoflagellates
  2. Zooflagellates
  3. Protozoans
  4. Algae

B

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Q.1: Which of the following has no central nervous system ?

  1. Hydra
  2. Man
  3. Planaria
  4. Cockroach

A

Q.2: The only group of algae having no flagellated motile cells at any stage is-------- ?

  1. Chrysophyta
  2. Phaeophyta
  3. Pyrrophyta
  4. Rhodophyta

D

Q.3: Who discovered the bacteria causing tuberculosis and also developed various techniques of media preparation and maintenance of pure culture----------- ?

  1. Robert Koch
  2. Louis Pasteur
  3. Alexander Fleming
  4. Leeuwenhoek

D

Q.4: Kingdom protista includes-------------phyla ?

  1. 27
  2. 28
  3. 26
  4. 29

A

Q.5: Golden algae are also known as--------- ?

  1. Chrysophyta
  2. Phaeophyta
  3. Pyrrophyta
  4. Rhodophyta

A

Q.6: Acromegaly is caused due to oversecretion of----------- ?

  1. STH
  2. TSH
  3. ACTH
  4. Thyroxin

D

Q.7: Number of pairs of cranial nerves is-------- ?

  1. 10
  2. 11
  3. 12
  4. 13

C

Q.8: The only group of algae having no flagellated motile cells at any stage is-------- ?

  1. Chrysophyta
  2. Phaeophyta
  3. Pyrrophyta
  4. Rhodophyta

D

Q.9: The word Archaeobacteria (a division of bacteria) derived from Greek means-------- ?

  1. True bacteria
  2. False bacteria
  3. Recent bacteria
  4. Ancient bacteria

D

Q.10: Most dinoflagellates are---------- ?

  1. Unicellular
  2. Multicellular
  3. Both of these
  4. Zooflagellates

A

Q.11: Complex specialized flagellates living symbiotically in the gut of termites are--------- ?

  1. Trichonymphas
  2. Trypanosoma
  3. Euglena
  4. Radiolarians

A

Q.12: All of the following are similarities between nervous and endocrine system except-------- ?

  1. Produce chemical messengers
  2. Release chemical messengers in extracellular space
  3. Homestatic in function
  4. Having slow but prolonged effects

D

Q.13: Chalk is gradually formed of dead----------- ?

  1. Actinopods
  2. Foraminiferans
  3. Apicomplexans
  4. Radiolarians

B

Q.14: The word Archaeobacteria (a division of bacteria) derived from Greek means--------- ?

  1. True bacteria
  2. False bacteria
  3. Recent bacteria
  4. Ancient bacteria

D

Q.15: Which of the following is antagonist to Auxin in terms of promotion of stem growth------ ?

  1. Gibberellins
  2. Cytokinins
  3. Abscisic Acid
  4. none of these.

C

Q.16: Type of sensations carried by nociceptors are---------- ?

  1. Touch.
  2. Temperature.
  3. Pressure.
  4. Pain

D

Q.17: Maize is an example of-------- ?

  1. Monocot
  2. Dicot
  3. Gymnosperms
  4. none of these

A

Q.18: Which of the following tracheophytes are leafless ?

  1. Psilopsida
  2. Lycopsida
  3. Sphenopsida
  4. Prteropsida

A

Q.19: The size of Spirochete is--------- ?

  1. 0.1 -600 um
  2. 100-200 nm
  3. 500 um
  4. 0.75-1.25 um

C

Q.20: The first bacterium isolated was------- ?

  1. Coccus
  2. Bacillus
  3. Vibrio
  4. Spirochete

B

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Q.1: Strong chlorosis is due to the deficiency of ------------- in plants ?

  1. Magnesium
  2. Nitrogen
  3. Potassium
  4. Phosphorus

B

Q.2: Deficiency of which of the following causes chlorosis---------- ?

  1. Nitrogen
  2. Magnesium
  3. Iron
  4. Both A and B

D

Q.3: All of the insectivorous plants are true-------- ?

  1. Heterotrophs
  2. Autotrophes
  3. Carnivores
  4. Saprotrophs

B

Q.4: --------is about 2.4 meter in length and comprising about two fifth of the small intestine ?

  1. Duodenum
  2. Jejunum
  3. Ileum
  4. Caecum

B

Q.5: A painful burning sensation produced in the chest cavity usually associated with the back flush of acidic chyme into the esophagus is------ ?

  1. Pyrolysis
  2. Pyrosis
  3. Peristalsis
  4. Dyspepsia

B

Q.6: Fungi which get their food directly from dead organic matter are called------ ?

  1. Parasitic fungi
  2. Predators
  3. Mutualists
  4. Decomposers

D

Q.7: All such fungi in which sexual phase has not been observed are present in------- ?

  1. Zygomycota
  2. Ascomycota
  3. Basidiomycota
  4. Deuteromycota

D

Q.8: The Kingdom of recyclers is known as kingdom--------- ?

  1. Algae
  2. Bacteria
  3. Fungi
  4. Embryophata

C

Q.9: Parasitic fungi absorb nutrients directly from the living host cytoplasm with the help of special hyphal tips called----- ?

  1. Mildew
  2. Constricting ring
  3. Haustoria
  4. All of these

C

Q.10: Which of the following statement is incorrect about asexual reproduction by spores in fungi ?

  1. Spores are haploid structures
  2. They are dispersed via wind water and insects
  3. On falling to a suitable place they germinate
  4. These are produced through fruiting bodies like ascocarps and basidiocarps.

D

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Q.1: Which of the following group of tracheophyta has expanded or scale like leaves which are alwaysed arranges in whorls ?

  1. Psilopsida
  2. Lycopsida
  3. Sphenopsida
  4. Prteropsida

C

Q.2: Which type of sensory structures carry deep pressure and vibration sensations-------- ?

  1. Hair end organs
  2. Meissner’s Corpuscles
  3. Pacinian corpuscles
  4. none of these

C

Q.3: In bacterial categories the bacteria smaller in number are------- ?

  1. Gram-ive bacteria
  2. Eubacteria
  3. Ancient bacteria
  4. Gram +ive bacteria

C

Q.4: Protonema is--------- ?

  1. Thallus like
  2. Algae like
  3. Fungus like
  4. Plant like

B

Q.5: Megaphylls i.e. leaves with divided veins with an expanded lamina is a dharacteristic of ------- ?

  1. Lycopods
  2. Ferns
  3. Seed plants
  4. Both b and c

D

Q.6: Of the following which one is not the characteristic of the plants included in psilopsida-------- ?

  1. Gametophyte is colourless
  2. They have mycorrhizal association
  3. Rhizoids bear Rhizome
  4. Aerial branches have veinless outgrowths

C

Q.7: Production of two types of spores is known as---------- ?

  1. Heterospory
  2. Homospory
  3. Heterogamy
  4. Gamospory

A

Q.8: Cyanobacteria have -------- cell wall ?

  1. Gram +ve.
  2. Gram – ve.
  3. Acid fast
  4. Cellulose rich

B

Q.9: Which of the following contains genes for drug and disease resistance in bacteria ?

  1. Cocci
  2. Bacilli
  3. Streptobacilli
  4. Vibrio

A

Q.10: Gametophyte of Psilopsida develops a symbiotic association with which of the following-------- ?

  1. Algae
  2. Bacteria
  3. Protozoa
  4. Fungus

D

Q.11: Cell wall is absent in------- ?

  1. Cocci
  2. Bacilli
  3. Mycobacterium
  4. Mycoplasma

D

Q.12: Psedudocoelom is character of---------- ?

  1. Coelenterates
  2. Platyhelminthes
  3. Aschelminthes
  4. Annelids

C

Q.13: four daughter cells are given to rise during the process of------ ?

  1. meiosis
  2. mitosis
  3. cell division
  4. none of these

A

Q.14: Shell of egg is leathery in appearance in------- ?

  1. Amphibians
  2. Reptiles
  3. Birds
  4. Prototherians

B

Q.15: In acoelomates gut is -------- in origin ?

  1. Ectodermal
  2. Endodermal
  3. Mesodermal
  4. None of these

B

Q.16: Sperms are --------- in origin ?

  1. Ectodermal
  2. Endodermal
  3. Mesodermal
  4. None of these

C

Q.17: In most triploblasts after embryonic development the three layers are represented as------- ?

  1. Separate layers of cells
  2. Structures formed from them
  3. Structures associated with them
  4. Their functions in body

B

Q.18: In sponges fertilization takes place in--------- ?

  1. Ectoderm
  2. Mesenchyme
  3. Endoderm
  4. Uterus

B

Q.19: Second largest phylum of invertebrates is----------- ?

  1. Porifera
  2. Arthropoda
  3. Mollusca
  4. Chordata

C

Q.20: Porifera range in size from------- ?

  1. Few millimeter wide to more than one meter tall
  2. Few centimeter wide to more than one meter tall
  3. Few decimeter wide to more than one meter tall
  4. One meter wide to more than millimeter tall.

A

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Q.1: The most important group of producers in marine ecosystem is of-------- ?

  1. Diatoms
  2. Euglenoids
  3. Dinoflagellates
  4. Brown algae

A

Q.2: Stentor is a/an---------- ?

  1. Ciliate
  2. Foraniniferan
  3. Actinopods
  4. Apicomplexan

A

Q.3: MSH is produced from-------- ?

  1. Anterior pituitary
  2. Median pituitary
  3. Posterior pituitary
  4. None of these

B

Q.4: Insufficient secretion of iodothyroxine in adults causes------ ?

  1. Myxedema
  2. Cretinism
  3. Goiter
  4. Exopthalmic goiter

A

Q.5: Chalk is gradually formed of dead--------- ?

  1. Actinopods
  2. Foraminiferans
  3. Apicomplexans
  4. Radiolarians

B

Q.6: Who coined the term Animalcules for microorganisms like Bacteria and protozoa------- ?

  1. Robert Koch
  2. Louis Pasteur
  3. Alexander Fleming
  4. Leeuwenhoek

D

Q.7: Based on molecular data euglenoids are thought to be closely related to------- ?

  1. Dinoflagellates
  2. Zooflagellates
  3. Protozoans
  4. Algae

B

Q.8: Which of the following statement about neuron is incorrect------------ ?

  1. They not only conduct impulses but also generate them
  2. They are not the only cellular component of nervous system
  3. They may show limited regenerative capabilities
  4. Like all the living cell, when they mature and divide to form similar cells

D

Q.9: Most of the photosynthesis on earth is carried by------- ?

  1. Kelps
  2. Gymnosperms
  3. Angiosperms
  4. Algae

D

Q.10: Who discovered the bacteria causing tuberculosis and also developed various techniques of media preparation and maintenance of pure culture------ ?

  1. Robert Koch
  2. Louis Pasteur
  3. Alexander Fleming
  4. Leeuwenhoek

D

Q.11: The only promoter of leaf senescence in the following plant hormones is--------- ?

  1. Gibberellins
  2. Cytokinins
  3. Auxins
  4. Abscisic Acid

D

Q.12: The part of sporophyte which is called sporangium is--------- ?

  1. Capsule
  2. Foot
  3. Stalk
  4. None of these

A

Q.13: Stem of Psilophyton an example of psilogsida is differentiated into an underground rhizome and an aerial part both of which are -------- branched ?

  1. Isotomous
  2. Dichotomously
  3. Trichotomously
  4. Multichotomously

B

Q.14: Which of the following statement is incorrect regarding germ theory of diseases postulated by Robert Koch--------- ?

  1. A specific organism can always be found in association with a given disease
  2. The organism can be isolated and grown in pure culture in the laboratories
  3. The pure culture cannot produce the disease when inoculated into susceptible animal however the causative organism isolated from pure culture can do so.
  4. It is possible to recover the organism in pure culture from the experimentally infected animals

C

Q.15: Some bacteria ranging occasionally a size of 500 ?m in length are------------ ?

  1. Escherichia coli
  2. Spirochetes
  3. Mycoplasma
  4. Epulopiscuim

B

Q.16: Antheridiophore and archegoniophore are found in------ ?

  1. Marchantia
  2. Funaria
  3. Both of these
  4. None of these

C

Q.17: In life cycle of Pinus megaspores produced by megasporangium divide into 4 megaspores by-------- ?

  1. Mitosis
  2. Meiosis
  3. Both depending upon the conditions
  4. None of these

B

Q.18: Ground pries are also known as-------- ?

  1. Lycopods
  2. Spike mosses
  3. Both of these
  4. None of these

C

Q.19: The simplest of all bryophytes are--------- ?

  1. Thallophytes
  2. Embryophytes
  3. Mosses
  4. Liverworts

D

Q.20: Horsetails are included in class of---------- ?

  1. Sphenopeida
  2. Lycopsida
  3. Psilopsida
  4. Pteropsida

A

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Q.1: Spirochete is an example of---------- ?

  1. Aerobic bacteria
  2. Anaerobic bacteria
  3. Facultative bacteria
  4. Microaerophilic

B

Q.2: Purple non-sulphur bacteria is an example of------- ?

  1. Heterotrophic bacteria
  2. Chemosynthetic bacteria
  3. Photosynthetic bacteria
  4. Saprotrophic bacteria

C

Q.3: A bacterium with tuft of flagella at both poles is called-------- ?

  1. Lophotrichus
  2. Monotrichous
  3. Peritrichous
  4. Amphitrichous

D

Q.4: cells are of----------types ?

  1. 4
  2. 3
  3. 2
  4. 1

C

Q.5: Which of the following tracheophytes are also called arthrophytes------- ?

  1. Psilopsids
  2. Lycopsids
  3. Sphenopsids
  4. Prteropsids

C

Q.6: Gram positive bacteria appear----------- ?

  1. Purple
  2. Red
  3. Pink
  4. Blue

A

Q.7: Which of the following statement about plants is incorrect ?

  1. All are eukaryotes
  2. They are multicellular.
  3. Non-motile organisms
  4. They Are heterotrophes

D

Q.8: mitochondria in heart muscles are nearly--------- ?

  1. 400
  2. 375
  3. 350
  4. 325

C

Q.9: In some cases the blastomere can produce complete embryo the cleavage will be-------- ?

  1. Spiral and determinate
  2. Radial and indeterminate
  3. Spiral and indeterminate
  4. Radial and determinate

B

Q.10: The fate of each blastomere is foretol

  • The cleavage will be as--------- ?

    1. Spiral and indeterminate
    2. Radial and indeterminate
    3. Radial and indeterminate
    4. Spiral and determinate

    D

    • Q.11: The skeleton of the sponges is in the form of variously shaped needle like structures called------- ?

    1. Stripules
    2. Spicules
    3. Brails
    4. Spines

    B

    Q.12: Coelom that develops from the archenteron as outpouching is-------- ?

    1. Pseudocoelom
    2. Enterocoelom
    3. Schizocoelom
    4. None of these

    B

    Q.13: Sperms released in water are carried to the mesenchyme in sponges by--------- ?

    1. Amoeboid cell
    2. Stipules
    3. Spicules
    4. Spines

    A

    Q.14: Which of the following are motile zooids in cnidarians ?

    1. Polyps
    2. Medusae
    3. Both of these
    4. None of these

    B

    Q.15: ------- are the first group of invertebrates which have developed a closed circulatory system ?

    1. Nematods
    2. Annelids
    3. Arthropods
    4. Molluscs

    B

    Q.16: All of the following are true for Platyhelminthes except---------- ?

    1. Flatwarms
    2. Triploblastic
    3. Coelomate
    4. Bilateral symmetry

    C

    Q.17: Which of following system is segmentally arranged in annelids ?

    1. Excretory system
    2. Digestive system
    3. Criculatory system
    4. Nervous system

    C

    Q.18: Which of the following is largest part of brain ?

    1. Cerebrum
    2. Cerebellum
    3. Medulla oblongata
    4. Thalamus

    A

    Q.19: Which of the following allows precise muscular movements---------- ?

    1. Cerebrum
    2. Cerebellum
    3. Thalamus
    4. Hypothalamus

    B

    Q.20: Which of the following cytoplasmic extensions carry the message toward the cell body------- ?

    1. Dendrites
    2. Axon
    3. Both of these
    4. none of these

    A


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