1st Year Chemistry Chapter 09 Reaction Kinetics MCQs Quiz Test

If you are looking MCQs for 1st year Chapter Nine "Reaction Kinetics" MCQs Question Answers with solutions you are here on right website. On this Page you will learn Chapter Nine objective type solved Questions with solutions. All of these chapter wise first Year Chemistry question answers are helpful for upcoming exams and tests preparations. These MCQs are also helpful for entry tests.

First Year Chemistry MCQs Unit 9 Reaction Kinetics Quiz Test

You will learn in this Chapter:

• Rate of Reactions
• Orders of reaction
• Half-Life period
• Determination of Rate of Chemical Reaction
• Physical and Chemical methods
• Energy of Activation
• Finding order of reaction
• Factors affecting the rate of reactions
• Catalysis

Q.1: The activation energy of reaction?

1. Includes the average kinetic energy of the reactants
2. Is in addition to the average kinetic energy of the reactants
3. Is in addition to the average kinetic energy of the products
4. Required for effective collisions

D

Q.2: E_a appears as a potential energy hill between --------- for carrying out the reaction?

1. Among the reactants
2. Reactants and the products
3. Among the products
4. None of the above

B

Q.3: The slope of the curve between 1/T and log k gives?

1. Reaction rate
2. Both of the above
3. Specific rate constant
4. Activation energy

D

Q.4: The unit of the rate constant is the same as that of the rate of reaction in?

1. 1^st order reaction
2. Zero-order reaction
3. 2^nd order reaction
4. 3^rd order reaction

B

Q.5: Arrhenius equation can be used for evaluating?

1. Specific rate constant
2. Both of the above
3. Activation energy
4. Half-life period

C

Q.6: A catalyst can?

1. Accelerate the reaction rate
2. Retard the reaction rate
3. Chemically un-consumed at the end of the reaction
4. All of the above

D

Q.7: The 2^nd order reaction becomes 1^st when?

1. One of the reactants is limiting
2. One of the reactants is in large excess
3. None of the reactants is in large excess
4. One of the reactants is acidic

B

Q.8: Oxidation of SO_2(g) in the presence of NO_(g) catalyst is an example of?

1. Homogeneous catalysis
2. Autocatalysis
3. Heterogeneous catalysis
4. Negative catalysis

A

Q.9: Oxidation of SO_2(g) in the presence of V₂O_5(s) is an example of?

1. Homogeneous catalysis
2. Autocatalysis
3. Heterogeneous catalysis
4. Negative catalysis

C

Q.10: Which one of the following is not a characteristic of a catalyst?

1. It is specific in its action
2. Provides the reactants a low activation energy barrier
3. Becomes chemically changed at the end of a reaction
4. It can be poisoned by an impurity which deactivates its catalytic capability

C

Q.11: The specific rate constant of a chemical reaction is the rate of the reaction when the concentration of the reactant is?

1. Less than unity
2. Greater than unity
3. Equal to unity
4. Equal to the concentration of 2^nd order reaction

C

Q.12: The half life for a 1^st order decomposition of a substance dissolved in CCl₄ is 2.5 hours at 30°C. The amount of substance left after 10 hours if the initial weight of the substance is 160g?

1. 5g
2. 15g
3. 10
4. 20g

C

Q.13: An endothermic reaction A → B has an activation energy 15kcal /mol and the heat of reaction 5kcal/mol. The activation energy for the reaction B → A will be?

1. 20kcal/mol
2. 10kcal/mol
3. 15kcal/mol
4. None of the above

B

Q.14: The rate of reaction is doubled for every 10°C rise in temperature. The increase in reaction rate as a result of temperature rise from 10°C to 100°C is?

1. 112
2. 400
3. 512
4. 614

C

Q.15: For the 1^st order decomposition reaction 2N₂O₅ (g) → 4NO_2(g) + O_2(g) the half-life is given as?

1. 0.693/k
2. log2/k
3. 0.693/2k
4. ln2/k

A

Q.16: Which one of the following is correct about the following reaction if the iron is not 100% pure?
2Fe + 3H₂O + O₂ → Fe₂O₃.3H₂O?

1. Very fast reaction
2. Moderately reaction
3. Very slow reaction
4. Not predicted

C

Q.17: For a chemical reaction to occur?

1. The vessel shall be open
2. Reacting molecules should have less energy than Ea at the time of the collision
3. Reacting molecules must be properly oriented and energy more than or equal to Ea
4. The reacting molecules must not collide with each other

C

Q.18: The reaction that involves gases, its rate does not depend upon?

1. Catalyst
2. Partial pressure
3. Temperature
4. Moles dm^-3

D

Q.19: The mathematical relation between the rate of reaction and the concentrations of the reactants is known as the?

1. Rate equation
2. Arrhenius equation
3. Rate low
4. Both a and c

C

Q.20: Which one affects the specific rate constant?

1. Temperature
2. Concentration of reactants
3. Catalyst
4. All of these

A

Q.21: Which one is a chemical method for the determination of the rate of reaction?

1. Spectrometry
2. Refractrometric method
3. Dilatometric method
4. Titration

D

Q.22: When the concentration of a reactant in the reaction is increased by 8 times, the rate increased only by 2 times. The order of the reaction is?

1. 1
2. ½
3. 1/3
4. 2

C

Q.23: The rate expression for a reaction A+B → products is rate = k [A]^2/3 [B]^-1/2 the order of reaction is?

1. 0
2. 5/2
3. 3/2
4. 1

D

Q.24: If 75% of any given amount of radioactive element disintegrates in 60 min. The half life of a radioactive element is.?

1. 20 min
2. 30 min
3. 45 min
4. 25 min

B

Q.25: The unit of rate constant depends on?

1. Number of reactants
2. Order of reaction
3. Concentration terms
4. Molecularity of reaction

B

Q.26: The unit of the rate constant of a second-order reaction is?

1. mol dm^-3 sec^-1
2. mol^-2 dm⁺⁶
3. sec^-1
4. mol^-1 dm⁺³ sec^-1

D

Q.27: The half-life period of the zero-order reaction is equal to?

1. 0.693/K
2. 1/Ka
3. a/2
4. 1.5/Ka²

C

Q.28: The influence of temperature on the reaction rate is predicted by?

1. Free energy change of reaction
2. Arrhenius equation
3. Van der Waal’ equation
4. Kinetic equation

B

Q.29: If the energy of the activated complex lies close to the energy of reactants, it means that reaction is?

1. Slow
2. Endothermic
3. Exothermic
4. Exothermic and fast

D

Q.30: Which of the following statements regarding a catalyst is not true?

1. A catalyst does not alter the equilibrium in a reversible reaction
2. A catalyst can initiate the reaction which is not thermodynamically favorable
3. Catalytic reactions are very specific
4. A catalyst remains unchanged in composition and quantity

B

1st Year Chemistry Chapter 08 Electrochemistry MCQs Quiz Test

If you are looking MCQs for 1st year Chapter Eight "Electrochemistry" MCQs Question Answers with solutions you are here on right website. On this Page you will learn Chapter Eight objective type solved Questions with solutions. All of these chapter wise first Year Chemistry question answers are helpful for upcoming exams and tests preparations. These MCQs are also helpful for entry tests.

First Year Chemistry Chapter Eight Electrochemistry Notes

You will learn in this Chapter:

• Oxidation State and Balancing of Redox Equations
• Electrolytic Conduction
• Electrolytic Cells
• Voltaic and Galvanic Cells
• Electrode Potential
• Electrochemical Series
• Rechargeable Batteries
• Non-Rechargeable Batteries

Q.1: Magnesium metal is extracted by the electrolysis of its?

1. A concentrated aqueous solution of its chloride
2. Dilute aqueous solution on of its chloride
3. Its fused chloride
4. Any solution

C

Q.2: Iron can be prevented from rusting by?

1. Connecting iron to more electropositive metal, a case of cathodic protection
2. Connecting iron to more electropositive metal, a case of anodic protection
3. Connecting iron to less electropositive metal, a case of anodic protection
4. Connecting iron to less electropositive metal, a case of cathodic protection

B

Q.3: Standard hydrogen electrode has an arbitrarily fixed potential of?

1. 0 V
2. 0.1 V
3. 1.0 V
4. 0.001 V

A

Q.4: The correct order of equivalent conductance at infinite dilution among LiCl, NaCl, and KCl is?

1. LiCl > NaCl > KCl
2. NaCl > KCl > LiCl
3. KCl > NaCl > LiCl
4. LiCl > KCl > NaCl

C

Q.5: Electrochemical series is useful in?

1. Prediction of the feasibility of a chemical reaction
2. Calculation of voltage
3. Comparison of the relative tendencies of the metals and non-metals to get oxidized or reduced
4. All of the above

D

Q.6: A normal aluminum electrode coupled with a normal hydrogen electrode gives an emf of 1.66 volts and deflection of the needle towards Hydrogen. The standard electrode potential of aluminum is?

1. -1.66 V
2. -0.83 V
3. +1.66 V
4. +0.83 V

A

Q.7: If the sum of E^o values of the two half cells is negative, then?

1. The reaction will be feasible
2. The reaction may or may not be feasible
3. The reaction will not be feasible
4. No prediction can be made

C

Q.8: Which of the following cell can convert chemical energy directly into electrical energy?

1. Mercury cell
2. Lead storage battery
3. Daniel cell
4. Fuel cell

D

Q.9: In a galvanic cell, the electrode occupying a lower position in the electrochemical series?

1. Will act as a cathode
2. The reduction will take place on it
3. Oxidation will take place on it
4. Both a and b

D

Q.10: Which of the following statement is true about galvanic cell?

1. The anode is positively charged
2. The cathode is positively charged
3. Reduction occurs at the anode
4. Reduction occurs at the cathode

D

Q.11: Greater the value of the standard reduction potential of the given species?

1. Greater is its tendency to accept electrons to undergo reduction
2. Greater is its tendency to accept electrons to undergo oxidation
3. Greater is its tendency to lose electrons to undergo reduction
4. Greater is its tendency to lose electrons to undergo oxidation

A

Q.12: Coinage metals have the least reactivity because they have?

1. Positive oxidation potentials
2. Zero oxidation potentials
3. Positive reduction potentials
4. Zero reduction potentials

C

Q.13: Which of the following is a secondary cell?

1. Dry cell
2. Ni-Cd cell
3. Mercury cell
4. Alkali cell

B

Q.14: Four metals A, B, C, and D are having standard electrode potential as -3.05, -1.66, -0.4, and 0.8V respectively. Which one will be the best reducing agent?

1. A
2. B
3. C
4. D

A

Q.15: The oxidation potential of Mg and Al are +2.37 and 1.66V, respectively. The Mg is a chemical reaction?

1. Will be replaced by Al
2. Won’t be able to replace Al
3. Will replace Al
4. None of the above

C

Q.16: Which can replace hydrogen from dilute acids?

1. Au
2. Zn
3. Pt
4. None of these

B

Q.17: The oxidation state of carbon-atom in glucose is?

1. +4
2. +6
3. -4
4. None of these

D

Q.18: The cell in which electrical energy is converted into chemical energy is?

1. Galvanic cell
2. Electrolytic cell
3. Voltaic cell
4. All of these

B

Q.19: The ability of elements to act as reducing agent --------- down to electrochemical series.?

1. Increases
2. Remain constant
3. Decreases
4. Depends upon the reaction conditions

C

Q.20: If a strip of Cu-metals is placed in a solution of FeSO₄ then?

1. Cu will be deposited
2. Cu and Fe both dissolve
3. Fe is precipitated
4. No reaction occur

D

Q.21: “Al” metal is extracted from its -------- during electrolysis.?

1. Chlorides
2. Cryolite
3. Oxides
4. All of these

C

Q.22: Halogens are placed at the lower level of electrochemical series, this indicates that?

1. Halogens are good reducing agents
2. Halogens are an oxidizing agent but bad reducing agents
3. Halogens are good oxidizing agent as well as good reducing agents
4. All the above statements are correct

B

Q.23: The electrolysis product of molten NaCl at electrodes?

1. Na and Cl₂
2. Na and NaOH
3. H₂ and Cl₂
4. H₂, Cl₂, and NaOH

A

Q.24: SHE acts as an anode when connected with Cu electrode but cathode with Zn electrode because?

1. Zn has less reduction potential than hydrogen and Cu more
2. Zn has less oxidizing potential than hydrogen and Cu more
3. Zn is above in electrochemical series than hydrogen and Cu below
4. All the above are possible reasons

A

Q.25: When an element is in contact with 1M aqueous solution of its own ions, at 298K then the potential is called?

1. Standard reduction potential
2. Reduction potential
3. Standard electrode potential
4. Both a and c

D

Q.26: Gold and silver are the least reactive due to?

1. Positive oxidation potential
2. Zero oxidation potential
3. Positive reduction potential
4. Having a large negative electrode potential

C

Q.27: During the electrolysis of aqueous KNO₃, H₂ is produced at cathode instead of potassium due to?

1. The reduction potential of K is greater than hydrogen
2. Hydrogen is more reactive than potassium
3. The reduction potential of potassium is less than hydrogen
4. All of the above are possible reasons

C

Q.28: Which of the following statement is correct?

1. Zn can replace Cu²⁺ in CuSO₄
2. Cu can replace H⁺ in H₂SO₄
3. Cu can replace Zn²⁺ in ZnSO₄
4. None of these

A

Q.29: In a reaction Zn + HNO₃ → Zn(NO₃)₂ + NO + H₂O?

1. Zn is reduced
2. N is oxidized
3. N is reduced
4. Hydrogen is reduced

C

Q.30: Which one metal shows the maximum oxidation state?

1. Mn
2. Ag
3. Cr
4. Hg

A

1st Year Chemistry Chapter 07 Solutions MCQs Quiz Test

If you are looking MCQs for 1st year Chapter Seven "Solutions" MCQs Question Answers with solutions you are here on right website. On this Page you will learn Chapter Seven objective type solved Questions with solutions. All of these chapter wise first Year Chemistry question answers are helpful for upcoming exams and tests preparations. These MCQs are also helpful for entry tests.

First Year Chemistry Chapter Seven Notes

You will learn in this Chapter:

• Concentration Units of Solution
• Types of Solution
• Raoult’s Law
• Vapour Pressure of Liquid-Liquid Solutions
• Solubility and Solubility Curves
• Colligative Properties of Solutions
• Energetic of Solution
• Hydration and Hydrolysis

Q.1: 10g NaOH is dissolved in 1000g water. The molality of NaOH is?

1. 1m
2. 0.5m
3. 4m
4. 0.25m

D

Q.2: 250cm³ of 0.2 molar potassium sulphate solution is mixed with 250cm³ of 0.2 molar KCl solution. The molar concentration of K⁺ ions is?

1. 0.2 molar
2. 0.3 molar
3. 0.25 molar
4. 0.35 molar

B

Q.3: The molality of pure water is?

1. 1
2. 55.5
3. 18
4. 6

B

Q.4: Molal boiling point constant is the ratio of the elevation in the boiling to?

1. Molarity
2. Mole fraction of solvent
3. Molality
4. Mole fraction of the solute

C

Q.5: The number of molecules of sugar in 1dm³ of 1M sugar solution is?

1. 6.02 x 10²³
2. 3.42 x 6.02 x 10²²
3. 6.02 x 10²⁰
4. None of the above

A

Q.6: Colligative properties can be used for calculating?

1. The density of a compound
2. The lattice energy of a compound
3. The molecular mass of a compound
4. All of the above

C

Q.7: 18g glucose is dissolved in 90g water. The relative lowering of vapor pressure is equal to?

1. 1/5
2. 1/51
3. 5.1
4. 1/55.5

B

Q.8: A solution has 92g ethanol, 96g methanol, and 90g water. Mole fraction of water in the solution is?

1. 0.1
2. 0.4
3. 0.2
4. 0.5

D

Q.9: Elevation of boiling point can be best studied by?

1. Beckmann’s method
2. Landsberger’s method
3. Gibb’s method
4. None of the above

B

Q.10: For observing Colligative properties, which of the following conditions should be fulfilled?

1. The solution should be dilute
2. Solute should be non-electrolyte
3. Solute should be non-volatile
4. All of the above

D

Q.11: When the solvent is containing non-volatile solute particles, then?

1. Vapor pressure is decreased
2. Vapor pressure doesn’t change
3. Vapor pressure is elevated
4. Volume is decrease

A

Q.12: The freezing point is the temperature of the substance at which its solid and liquid phases have the?

1. Different vapor pressure
2. Same volume
3. Same vapor pressure
4. Same density

C

Q.12: A solution of glucose is 10%. The volume in which 1g mole of it will be dissolved is?

1. 1 dm³
2. 200 dm³
3. 1.8 dm³
4. 180 dm³

C

Q.13: Which of the following is not a colligative property?

1. Density
2. Elevation of boiling point
3. Depression in freezing point
4. Osmotic pressure

A

Q.14: The substances which don’t dissolve in a reasonable amount in a particular solvent are-----.?

1. Miscible
2. Well soluble
3. Sparingly soluble
4. Insoluble

C

Q.15: Which one of the following solution of glucose in water is more dilute?

1. 0.1 molar
2. 0.1 molal
3. 1% w/w
4. All have the same concentration

B

Q.15: Which liquid solute is dissolved in the liquid solvent, then the best unit of concentration is?

1. % w/w
2. % w/v
3. % v/v
4. % v/w

C

Q.16: Which of the following is an example of solid in solid solution?

1. Dust particles in smoke
2. Opals
3. Mercury metal in silver metal
4. All of the above

B

Q.17: A colligative property is not represented by?

1. Elevation of boiling point
2. Osmotic pressure
3. Freezing point
4. Relative lowering of vapor pressure

C

Q.18: A solution of KCl in water contains?

1. Free formula units
2. Free ions
3. Free atoms
4. Free molecules

B

Q.19: For very dilute solution the following expression is used?

1. Gram per million
2. Nanogram per million
3. Microgram per million
4. Parts per million

D

Q.20: That solution which possesses a maximum concentration of solute at a given temperature is known as?

1. Unsaturated
2. Saturated
3. Supersaturated
4. Dilute solution

B

Q.21: Which of the following 0.1 m solution will have the lowest freezing point?

1. K₂SO₄
2. NaCl
3. Glucose
4. Urea

A

Q.22: Which has the highest freezing point?

1. 1.0 m NaCl
2. 1.0 m CaCl₂
3. 1.0 m Urea
4. 1.0 m KCl

C

Q.23: Which of the following statement is true about ideal solutions?

1. The change in volume is zero
2. The change in enthalpy is zero
3. The vapor pressure change is zero
4. Both a and b

D

Q.24: The addition of sodium chloride to water, while boiling eggs results to?

1. Decrease boiling point of water
2. Increase the boiling point of water
3. Prevent breaking of eggs
4. Make egg tasty

B

Q.25: Which pair of the following will not form an ideal solution?

1. C₂H₅Br + C₂H₅I
2. H₂O + C₄H₉OH
3. C₆H₁₄ + C₇H₁₆
4. CCl₄ + SiCl₄

B

Q.26: The study of elevation of boiling point is called?

1. Ebullioscopy
2. Cryoscopy
3. Osmometer
4. None of these

A

Q.27: A solution of glucose is 10% w/v. The volume in which 1g mole of it is dissolved will be?

1. 1dm³
2. 200 cm³
3. 900 cm³
4. 1.8 dm³

D

Q.28: The relative lowering of vapor pressure is equal to?

1. Mole fraction of solvent
2. Mole fraction of solution
3. The molar mass of solute
4. Mole fraction of solute

D

1st Year Chemistry Chapter 06 Chemical Equilibrium MCQs Quiz Test

If you are looking MCQs for 1st year Chapter Six "Chemical Equilibrium" MCQs Question Answers with solutions you are here on right website. On this Page you will learn Chapter Six objective type solved Questions with solutions. All of these chapter wise first Year Chemistry question answers are helpful for upcoming exams and tests preparations. These MCQs are also helpful for entry tests.

First Year Chemistry Chemical Equilibrium MCQs

You will learn in this Chapter:

• Reversible and Irreversible Reactions
• State of Chemical Equilibrium
• Law of mass action
• Equilibrium Constants
• Applications of Equilibrium Constants
• Le-Chatilier’s Principle
• Applications of Chemical Equilibrium in Industry
• Ionic Product of Water
• Ionization Constants of Acids/Base
• Lowry Bronsted Acid-Base Concept
• Common Ion Effect
• Buffer Solution
• Buffer Capacity
• Solubility Product

Q.1: What will be the pH of 1.0 mol dm^-3 of H₂X, which is only 50% dissociated??

1. 1
2. 0
3. 2
4. Less than 0

B

Q.2: What will be the pH of 1.0 mol dm^-3 of NH₄OH, which is 1% dissociated??

1. 2
2. 12
3. 0
4. 2.7

B

Q.3: Buffer solutions are used in except??

1. Clinical analysis
2. Nutrition
3. Soil science
4. Qualitative analysis

D

Q.4: Buffer action can be explained by except??

1. Common ion effect
2. Le-Chatelier’s principle
3. Law of mass action
4. Solubility product

D

Q.5: At equilibrium, the concentration of reactants and products are?

1. Constant
2. Maximum
3. Different
4. Equal

A

Q.6: In the reaction A_2(g) + 4B_2(g) ⇌ 2AB_4(g) such that ΔH < 0;the formation of AB_4(g)will be favoured at?

1. Low temperature and high pressure
2. High temperature and low pressure
3. Low temperature and low pressure
4. High temperature and high pressure

A

Q.7: Consider the reaction PCl_{5 (g)} ⇌ PCl_3(g) +Cl₂ in a closed container at equilibrium. At a fixed temperature, what will be the effect of adding more PCl₅ on the equilibrium constant??

1. It increases
2. It remains unaffected
3. It decreases
4. Can’t be predicted without K_P

B

Q.8: The oxidation of SO₂ to SO₃ is an exothermic reaction. The yield of SO₃ will be maximum if?

1. Temperature is increased and pressure is kept constant
2. Temperature is reduced and pressure is increased
3. Both temperature and pressure are increased
4. Both temperature and pressure are decreased

B

Q.9: If the concentration of salt is greater than the acid in buffer solution, then the??

1. pH = pK_a
2. pH = pK_b
3. pH > pK_a
4. pH > pK_b

A

Q.10: In a saturated solution of AgCl, the molar concentration of Ag⁺ and Cl^– is 1.0 x 10^-5 M each. What is the value of Ksp??

1. 1.0 x 10^-5
2. 0.1 x 10^-5
3. 1.0 x 10^-15
4. 1.0 x 10-¹⁰

D

Q.11: The solubility of Fe(OH)₃ is x molar per dm³. Its K_sp would be?

1. 9x³
2. 27x⁴
3. 3x⁴
4. 9x⁴

B

Q.12: For the reaction H_2(g) + I_2(g) ⇌ 2HI_(g). The equilibrium constant changes with?

1. Total pressure
2. The concentration of H₂ and I₂
3. Catalyst
4. Temperature

D

Q.13: The decomposition of N₂O₄ to NO₂ is carried out at 280°C in chloroform. When equilibrium is reached, 0.2 moles of N₂O₄ and 0.02 mole of NO₂ are present in 1:1 ratio. The equilibrium constant for the reaction N₂O₄ →2NO₂ is------.?

1. 0.01
2. 0.001
3. 0.02
4. 0.002

D

Q.14: In a given system, water and ice are in equilibrium, if the pressure is applied to the above system then?

1. More ice is formed
2. The amount of ice and water will remain the same
3. More ice is melted
4. Both a and b

C

Q.15: The solubility product of AgCl is 2.0 x 10^-10 mol²dm^-6. The maximum concentration of Ag⁺ ions in the solution is?

1. 1.41 x 10^-5 mol² dm^-6
2. 1.41 x 10^-10 mol² dm^-6
3. 2.0 x 10^-10 mol² dm^-6
4. 4.0 x 10^-20 mol² dm^-6

A

Q.16: An excess of silver nitrate is added to the aqueous barium chloride and the precipitate is removed by filtration. What are the main ions in the filtrate??

1. Ag⁺ and NO^–₃ only
2. NO^–₃ and Ba⁺² only
3. Ag⁺ and NO^–₃ and Ba⁺² only
4. Cl^– and NO^–₃ and Ba⁺² only

C

Q.17: The pH of 10^-4 mole dm^-3of HCl?

1. 2
2. 4
3. 3
4. 5

B

Q.18: The most suitable temperature for preparing ammonia gas is?

1. 250°C
2. 450°C
3. 350°C
4. 550°C

B

Q.19: The K_w of water at 25°C is given by?

1. 10^-7
2. 10^-10
3. 10^-12
4. 10^-14

D

Q.20: When HCl gas is passed through the saturated solution of rock salt, the solubility of NaCl?

1. Increases
2. May increases or decreases
3. Decreases
4. None of these

C

Q.21: For what value of K_c almost forward reaction is complete??

1. K_c = 10^-30
2. K_c = 1
3. K_c = 10³⁰
4. K_c = 0

C

Q.22: In which of the following Equilibria will K_c and K_p have not the same value??

1. 2HI ⇌ H₂ + I₂
2. 2SO₂ + O₂ ⇌ 2SO₃
3. N₂ + O₂ ⇌ 2NO
4. All of these

B

Q.23: If the temperature is increased of the following reaction, then will go in
N₂ + 3H₂ ⇌ 2NH₃ ∆H = -Ve?

1. Forward direction
2. Remain constant
3. Reverse direction
4. Cannot be predicted

C

Q.24: The pH of an aqueous solution is 3.0 at 25°C. The hydrogen ion concentration in the solution would be?

1. 0.001
2. 0.01
3. 0.0001
4. 10^-5

A

Q.25: Which one is very weak acid??

1. HF
2. H₂CO₃
3. HCl
4. H₂O

D

Q.26: Which one increases by common ion effect except??

1. Crystallization
2. Solubility
3. Association of ions
4. All of these

B

Q.27: A basic buffer solution can be prepared by mixing?

1. Strong acid and it is a salt with a weak base
2. Strong base and it is a salt with weak acid
3. Weak base and it is a salt with a strong acid
4. Weak acid and it is a salt with strong base

C

Q.28: Which one is the best buffer those have?

1. pH = pK_a
2. pH > pK_a
3. pOH < pK_b
4. pK_a = 0

A

Q.29: The pH of an ideal buffer is?

1. 10
2. 7
3. Less than 7
4. 0

B

Q.30: If the ionic product is equal to K_sp then the solution is?

1. Unsaturated
2. Ideal
3. Supersaturated
4. Saturated

D

1st Year Chemistry Chapter 05 Thermochemistry MCQs Quiz Test

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1st Year Chemistry MCQs Thermochemistry Quiz Test

You will learn in this Chapter:

• Spontaneous and non-spontaneous reaction
• System, Surrounding and State Function
• Internal Energy
• 1st law of Thermodynamics
• Enthalpy of a reaction
• Measurement of Enthalpy
• Hess’s Law
• Born-Haber Cycle

Q.1: Enthalpy of neutralization of strong acids and strong bases have the same values because?

1. Neutralization leads to the formation of salt and water
2. Strong acids and bases are ionic substances
3. Acids always give rise to H⁺ and bases always furnish OH^-1 ions
4. The net change involves the combination of H⁺ and OH^-1 ions form water

D

Q.2: For an endothermic reaction, enthalpy of reactants?

1. Is smaller than that of the products
2. Is greater than that of the products
3. Is equal to that of the products
4. Must be greater or smaller than that of the products

A

Q.3: Which of the following has a positive value of enthalpy?

1. Neutralization
2. Atomization
3. Combustion
4. All of the above

B

Q.4: The net heat change in the chemical reaction is the same whether it is brought about in two or more different ways in one or several steps. It is known as?

1. Henry’s law
2. Hess’s law
3. Joule’s principal
4. Law of conservation of energy

B

Q.5: Hess’s law is analogous to?

1. Law of heat summation
2. Law of increasing entropy
3. Law of heat exchange
4. 1^st law of thermodynamics

A

Q.6: NaOH + HCl → NaCl + H₂O
Enthalpy change in the above reaction is called?

1. Enthalpy of reaction
2. Enthalpy of neutralization
3. Enthalpy of formation
4. Enthalpy of combustion

B

Q.7: A hypothetical reaction X → 2Yproceeds by the following sequence of steps:
1/2X → Z ∆H = q₁
Z → 2W ∆H = q₂
W → 1/2Y ∆H = q₃
The values for the ∆H of the reaction is?

1. q₁ + q₂ + q₃
2. 2(q₁ + q₂ + q₃)
3. 2q₁ + 2q₂ + 3q₃
4. 2(q₁ + q₂ + q₃)

C

Q.8: Calories are equivalent to?

1. 0.4184 J
2. 40.18 J
3. 4.184 J
4. 418.4 J

C

Q.9: The values of ∆H for the process I_(g) + e^-1 → I^-1_(g) is?

1. > 0
2. 0
3. < 0
4. None of the above

C

Q.10: The enthalpy of formation of a compound is?

1. Positive
2. Either positive or negative
3. Negative
4. None of the above

B

Q.11: What is correct about the heat of combustion?

1. It is positive in some cases while negative in other
2. It is applicable to gaseous substances only
3. It is always negative
4. It is always positive

C

Q.12: What is not correct about ∆H_f??

1. Its value gives an idea about the relative stability of reactants and the products
2. It is always negative
3. Values depend upon the nature of bonds
4. Its value can be greater or less than zero

B

Q.13: If an endothermic reaction is allowed to take place very rapidly in air, the temperature of the surrounding air will??

1. Remains constant
2. Decrease
3. Increase
4. Either increase or decrease

D

Q.14: When a solid melts, there is?

1. Increase in entropy
2. The decrease in internal energy
3. Increase in enthalpy
4. Both a and b

D

Q.15: The heat of reaction depends upon?

1. The temperature of the reactants
2. Physical states of the reactants and the products
3. Both a and b
4. Path of the reaction and the temperature

B

Q.16: The exothermic process is?

1. Evaporation
2. Respiration
3. Sublimation
4. Boiling

B

Q.17: During an exothermic or endothermic reaction which one of the following formulae is used to calculate the amount of heat evolved or absorbed-----?

1. ∆H = ∆E + PV
2. ∆p = ∆H
3. ∆E = q + w
4. q = m x s x ∆T

D

Q.18: Most of the reactions which give stable products are?

1. Endothermic
2. Isothermal
3. Exothermic
4. None of these

C

Q.19: The measurement of enthalpy change at standard conditions means that we should manage the measurement that------?

1. 24°C at 1 atm
2. 0°C at 1 atm
3. 25°C at 1 atm
4. 100°C 1 at atm

B

Q.20: The total heat content of a system is called-------?

1. Internal energy
2. Enthalpy
3. Entropy
4. All of these

B

Q.21: The enthalpies of all elements in their standard states are?

1. Unity
2. Always +ve
3. Always –ve
4. Zero

D

Q.22: A state function which describes together the internal energy and product of pressure and volume is called-------?

1. Enthalpy
2. Internal energy
3. Work
4. Kinetic energy

A

Q.23: The enthalpy change for the reaction C₂H₂ + 5/2 O₂ → 2CO₂ + H₂O is brown as enthalpy of?

1. Formation of CO₂
2. Combustion of C₂H₂
3. Fusion of C₂H₂
4. Vaporization of C₂H₂

B

Q.24: The value of ∆V is very small. The term P∆V can be neglected for the process involving?

1. Liquid and gas
2. Liquid and solid
3. Solid and gases
4. None of these

B

Q.25: The lattice energy of NaCl is?

1. 787 J/mole
2. 780 kJ/mol
3. 790 kJ/mol
4. -787 kJ/mole

D

Q.26: Decomposition of H₂O is?

1. Endothermic reaction
2. Exothermic reaction
3. Nuclear reaction
4. Zero nuclear reaction

A

Q.27: According to Hess’s Law, the enthalpy change for a reaction?

1. Depends on path
2. The sum of ∆E and ∆H
3. Independent of the path
4. None of these

C

Q.28: Enthalpy of formation of one mole of an ionic compound from gaseous ion under standard condition is called------?

1. Gibb’s energy
2. Lattice energy
3. Bond energy
4. All of these

B

Q.29: Choose from the following the correct statement about Born Harbor cycle?

1. Born Harbor cycle is different from Hess’s law
2. The energy changes in a cyclic process is not zero
3. The lattice energy of crystalline substances can be calculated easily
4. None of these

C

Q.30: Change in enthalpy of ∆H a system can be calculated by the following relationship?

1. ∆H = ∆E-PV
2. ∆H = ∆E-Q
3. ∆H = ∆E+q
4. ∆H = ∆E+P∆V

D

1st Year Chemistry Chapter 04 Chemical Bonding MCQs Quiz Test

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First Year Chemistry Chemical Bounding MCQs Quiz Test

You will learn in this Chapter:

• Chemical Bond
• Atomic Sizes
• Ionization Energy, Electron Affinity and Electronegativity
• Lewis Concept
• Theories of Covalent Bond
• Atomic Orbit Hybridization
• Molecular Orbit Theory
• Bond Energy, Bond length and Dipole Moment

Q.1: Oxy-acids of halogens has the co-ordinate covalent bond between?

1. Hydrogen and oxygen
2. Hydrogen and hydrogen
3. Halogens and oxygen
4. Oxygen and oxygen

C

Q.2: Which of the following has a perfect triangular structure?

1. CO₂
2. NO
3. PH₃
4. SO₃

D

Q.3: Limitation of valance bond theory (VBT) is that?

1. It doesn’t address the shapes of the molecules
2. It doesn’t involve the criteria of bond formation
3. It doesn’t involve the concept of valency
4. None of the above

A

Q.4: End to end overlapping of orbitals give rise to the formation of?

1. Sigma bond
2. Metallic bond
3. Pi bond
4. Coordinate covalent bond

A

Q.5: Side by side overlapping of orbitals gives rise to the formation of?

1. Sigma bond
2. Metallic bond
3. Pi bond
4. Ionic bond

C

Q.6: In sp³ hybridized orbital, the s character is?

1. 25%
2. 75%
3. 50%
4. 100%

A

Q.7: Dipole moment gives the information about?

1. % ionic character
2. The geometry of the molecules
3. Bond angles
4. All of the above

D

Q.8: Bonding affects properties like?

1. Solubility
2. Reaction kinetics
3. Melting, boiling points, and isomerism
4. All of these

D

Q.9: In sp² hybridized orbital, the s character is-------.?

1. 11.11%
2. 33.33%
3. 22.22%
4. 44.44%

B

Q.10: An ionic compound A⁺B^– is most likely to form when?

1. The ionization energy of A is high and electron affinity of B is low
2. The ionization energy of A is low and electron affinity of B is high
3. Both the ionization energy and the electron affinity of A and B are high
4. Both the ionization energy and the electron affinity of A and B are low

B

Q.11: The bond order of nitrogen molecule and neon?

1. 2 and 1
2. 3 and 0
3. 0 and 3
4. 2 and 0

B

Q.12: Which of the following blocks will have comparatively higher electron affinity??

1. s block
2. f block
3. p block
4. d block

C

Q.13: Which one of the following has the maximum number of sp² carbon atoms?

1. Benzene
2. Methane
3. CCl₄
4. Ethene

A

Q.14: The process in which the orbitals of different energies and shape mix with each other to give equivalent hybrid orbitals is called?

1. Dissolution
2. Hybridization
3. Resonance
4. Ionization

B

Q.15: The structure of water is?

1. Trigonal
2. Angular
3. Linear
4. Tetragonal

B

Q.16: In a crystal, cations and anions are held together by?

1. Sharing of electrons
2. Nuclear forces
3. Electrostatic forces
4. Electrons

C

Q.17: Ionic compounds are obtained by the combination of groups?

1. 3 and 5
2. 1 and 7
3. 2 and 5
4. 4 and 8

B

Q.18: In a double bond connecting 2 atoms, there is a sharing of?

1. 1 electron
2. 2 electrons
3. 3 electrons
4. two-electron pairs

D

Q.19: F₂ molecule is formed by the overlap of?

1. s-s orbital
2. s-p orbital
3. p-p head-on overlapping of orbitals
4. p-p parallel overlapping of orbitals

C

Q.20: Which of the following compounds has a non-directional bond??

1. BF₃
2. KBr
3. Mg CO₃
4. NF₃

B

Q.21: The structure of CrO^-2₄ is?

1. Tetrahedral
2. Octahedral
3. Cubic
4. Triclinic

A

Q.22: Number of electrons shared in SF₆ molecule is-------.?

1. 4
2. 6
3. 8
4. 12

D

Q.23: The following molecules has a linear structure except??

1. CS₂
2. SO₂
3. CO₂
4. BeCl₂

B

Q.24: Which of the following species has lone pair of electrons on the central atom??

1. CH₄
2. NH⁺₄
3. PCl₅
4. PCl₃

D

Q.25: The shape of H₃O⁺ is?

1. Tetrahedral
2. Angular
3. Pyramidal
4. Trigonal planar

C

Q.26: Which pair has trigonal planar geometry??

1. NH₃, PH₃
2. H₂O, C₂H₂
3. BF₃, AlH₃
4. CO₂, SO₂

C

Q.27: Which of the following statements is not correct??

1. The double bond is stronger than the single bond
2. σ bond is stronger than π bond
3. The triple bond is shorter than a double bond
4. σ bond is weaker than π bond

D

Q.28: A molecule in which the distance between two carbon atom is largest is---------.?

1. Ethane
2. Ethene
3. Ethyne
4. Benzene

A

Q.29: All the metals shine when they are freshly cut. The reason is?

1. The conductivity of the metal is increased
2. The process of cutting gives energy to the metal atoms
3. The electron becomes less delocalized according to valance bond theory
4. The electrons are excited at higher energy levels and emit the photons when they fall back

D

Q.30: Total number of valance electrons of a nitrogen atom in an ammonium ion is?

1. 6
2. 10
3. 8
4. 16

C

1st Year Chemistry Chapter 03 Atomic Structure MCQs Quiz Test

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First Year Chemistry Chapter Three Atomic Structure MCQs Quiz Test

You will learn in this Chapter:

• Discovery of Electrons
• Properties of Cathodes
• Discovery of protons and their properties
• Discovery of Neutrons and their properties
• Measurement of e/m value and Measurement of Charge on electron
• Rutherford’s atomic model
• Planck’s Quantum Theory
• Bohr’s Atomic Model/Defects
• Spectrum
• X-Rays and Atomic number
• Wave-Particle Nature of Matter
• Heisenberg’s Uncertainty principle
• Quantum Numbers
• Electronic Distribution

Q.1: Isotopes differ in?

1. Properties with respect to their mass number
2. Properties with respect to their proton number
3. Isotopes don’t differ as they have same number of electrons and protons
4. All of the above

A

Q.2: Isotopes are?

1. Chemically similar
2. Physically dissimilar
3. Chemically dissimilar
4. Both a and b

D

Q.3: Ionization energy depends upon?

1. Atomic/ionic radii
2. Proton to electron ratio
3. Shielding effect
4. All of the above

D

Q.4: 2^nd ionization energy of Mg is higher than the first because?

1. Metallic character of Mg⁺¹ is less than that of Mg
2. Nuclear pull for Mg⁺¹electron is more than that for the Mg atom
3. Size of Mg⁺¹ is greater than Mg⁺²
4. Both a and b

B

Q.5: With the increasing atomic number, ionization energy increases along a period because?

1. No change in shielding effect along a period
2. Nuclear pull increases with the increase in the number of protons
3. Atomic/ionic size decreases along a period
4. All of the above

D

Q.6: The correct set of four quantum numbers for the valence electron of rubidium (Z = 37) is?

1. n = 5, 1 = 0, m = 0 and s = +1/2
2. n = 5, 1 = 1, m = 1 and s = +1/2
3. n = 5, 1 = 1, m = 0 and s = +1/2
4. n = 6, 1 = 0, m = 0 and s = +1/2

A

Q.7: The electron configuration of K(19) is?

1. 1s³ 2s³ 2p⁵ 3s³ 3p⁵
2. 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 2p⁵ 4s²
3. 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁶ 4s¹
4. None of the above

C

Q.8: The number of d-electrons in Fe⁺² (Z=26) is not equal to?

1. p electrons in Ne (Z = 10)
2. d electrons in Fe (Z = 26)
3. s electrons in Mg (Z = 12)
4. p electrons in Ar (Z = 17)

C

Q.9: The electronic configuration of an element is 1s² 2s² 2p³. This represents a/an?

1. Ground state
2. Hybridized state
3. Excited-state
4. Molecular state

A

Q.10: In which of the following, all have the same number of electrons?

1. Cl^–, Br^– and I^–
2. H^–, H and H⁺
3. F^–, Ne and Na⁺
4. Li⁺, Na⁺ and K⁺

C

Q.11: Identify the correct order of increasing energy?

1. 1s < 2s < 3s
2. 2s > 3s > 1s
3. 1s > 2s > 3s
4. None of the above

A

Q.12: The shapes of s orbitals is circular and their size?

1. Increase with the increase in principal quantum number
2. Decrease with the increase in principal quantum number
3. Remains the same with the change in principal quantum number
4. None of the above

A

Q.13: The place between the two orbitals is called?

1. Free zone
2. Nodal surface
3. Neutral zone
4. Resonance area

B

Q.14: Shapes of p orbitals?

1. Circular
2. Dumb-bell
3. Elliptical
4. Complex

B

Q.15: The correct number of degenerate orbitals?

1. s = 2, p = 6, d = 10, f = 14
2. s = 3, p = 1, d = 5, f = 7
3. s = 1, p = 3, d = 5, f = 7
4. s = 1, p = 3, d = 7, f = 5

C

Q.16: The ion that is iso-electronic with CI atom is?

1. CN^–
2. O⁺₂
3. N⁺₂
4. O^–₂

D

Q.17: Which of the following particles would on losing an electron has its outermost p-orbital as half-filled?

1. Nitrogen atom
2. O⁺ ion
3. P^-1 ion
4. S⁺¹ ion

C

Q.18: The ionic specie having more electrons than neutrons is?

1. Mg⁺²
2. O^2–
3. Na⁺
4. F^-1

B

Q.19: Which pair of electrons of elements will have the same chemical properties?

1. 2, 24
2. 2, 4
3. 13, 22
4. 3, 11

D

Q.20: An orbital which is spherically symmetrical is?

1. p-orbital
2. s-orbital
3. d-orbital
4. f-orbital

B

Q.21: The value of e/m for the electron is?

1. 1.7588 x 10¹¹ kg C^-1
2. 1.7588 x 10^-11 Ckg^-1
3. 1.7588 x 10¹¹ kg C^-1
4. 1.7588 x 10¹¹ Ckg^-1

D

Q.22: A nodal plane in an orbital is the plane where the electron density is?

1. Maximum
2. -ve
3. Zero
4. +ve

C

Q.23: How many times the mass of neutrons is greater than the mass of an electron?

1. 1480
2. 2000
3. 1840
4. 1200

C

Q.24: The mass of an oxygen atom is?

1. 2.657 x 10^-23g
2. 2.657 x 10²³
3. 16g
4. 32g

A

Q.25: The mass of a neutron is?

1. Same as that of proton
2. A little bit smaller than that of proton
3. Slightly more than that of proton
4. Slightly less than that of proton

C

Q.26: The smallest charge of electricity which has been measured on any particle is?

1. Charge on the positive ray of He gas
2. Charge on particles
3. Charge on any droplet in Millikan Experiment
4. Charge on an electron

D

Q.27: Which of the following has highest ionization energy value?

1. Li
2. Be
3. H
4. He

D

Q.28: Greater shielding effect corresponds to ionization energy value?

1. Greater
2. Lesser
3. Remain the same
4. No effect

B

Q.29: The mass of a proton is?

1. 9.1 x 10^-10 g
2. 9.1 x 10^-18 g
3. 1.672 x 10^-27 kg
4. 9.1 x 10^-31 kg

C

Q.30: Which group shows the abnormal behavior in trend of ionization energy in periods?

1. Group I-A
2. Group III-A
3. Group-VI-A
4. Both b and c

B

1st Year Chemistry Chapter 02 Liquids, Solids, Gases MCQs Quiz Test

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First Year Chemistry Chapter Two Liquids Solids and Gases MCQs Quiz Test

You will learn in this Chapter:

• Properties of Solid, Liquid, and Gas
• Boyle’s and Charles’s Law
• General Gas Equation
• Avogadro’s Law
• Dalton’s law of Partial Pressure/Applications
• Diffusion and Effusion
• Kinetic Molecular Theory of Gases
• Evaporation
• Boiling
• Structure of Crystalline Solid

First Year Chemistry Chapter Two Liquids, Solids, Gases MCQs Quiz Test

Q.1:The number of molecules in 0.0112m³ of methane at 25°C and pressure of 760mm Hg is:?

1. 6.02 x 10²⁰
2. 3.01 x 10¹²
3. 6.02 x 10²³
4. 3.01 x 10²³

D

Q.2: Which of the following will have the same number of molecules at STP:?

1. 280 cm³ of CO₂ and 280 cm³ of N₂O
2. 44g of CO₂ and 11.2 dm³ CO
3. 11.2 dm³ of O₂ and 32g of O₂
4. 28g of N₂ and 5.6 dm³ of oxygen

A

Q.3: The partial pressure of oxygen in the lungs is:?

1. 159 torr
2. 116 torr
3. 760 torr
4. 50 torr

A

Q.4: Gases deviate from ideal behavior at high pressure. Which of the following is correct for non-ideality:?

1. At high pressure, the gas molecules move in one direction only
2. At high pressure, the collision between the gas molecules are increased manifold
3. At high pressure, the volume of the gas becomes insignificant
4. At high pressure, the intermolecular attractions become significant

D

Q.5: Evaporation is designated as a cooling process because of the reason:?

1. It is a surface phenomenon
2. It involves heat absorption
3. High energy molecules leave behind the low energy molecules and cause cooling
4. All of the above

C

Q.6: Evaporating water depends upon the following:?

1. Surface area and intermolecular forces
2. Speed of the air above the liquid surface
3. Humidity in air
4. All of these

D

Q.7: The vapor pressure of a liquid depends upon the following:?

1. Surface area and temperature only
2. The volume of the liquid
3. The humidity of the liquid in the air
4. Temperature and the intermolecular forces

D

Q.8: At 1atm pressure, a liquid 1 has the boiling point less than a liquid 2, what can we predict about both the liquids:?

1. Liquid 1 has high vapor pressure than the liquid 2
2. Liquid 1 has the weak intermolecular forces of attraction than the liquid 2
3. Liquid 1 is more volatile than the liquid 2
4. All of the above

D

Q.9: The strength of hydrogen bonding is:?

1. 20 times less than a covalent bond
2. 20 times more than a covalent bond
3. 20 times less than an ionic bond
4. 20 times more than an ionic bond

A

Q.10: 110°C boiling water of water corresponds to the external pressure:?

1. Between 760 to 1200 torr
2. 765 torr
3. Between 200 to 760 torr
4. Any value of pressure

A

Q.11: Lower alcohols in spite of being organic are soluble in water because:?

1. Intermolecular hydrogen bonding
2. Dipole induced dipoles
3. The low electronegativity difference between C and H
4. All of the above

A

Q.12: Ammonia shows the maximum boiling point among the hydrides of the 5^th group because:?

1. Lone pair of electrons present on the nitrogen
2. The very small size of nitrogen
3. The pyramidal structure of ammonia
4. The enhanced electro-negativity character of nitrogen

D

Q.13: Ice float on the liquid water because:?

1. The density of water is maximum at 4°C
2. Water freezes at 0°C and is less dense than liquid water
3. Ice occupies less volume than water at 0°C
4. Both b and c

B

Q.14: Type of hybridization in diamond:?

1. sp
2. sp²
3. sp³
4. No hybridization

B

Q.15: The overall structure of the diamond looks:?

1. Face centered cubic
2. Square planner
3. Tetragonal
4. None of the above

A

Q.16: The graph between pressure and the inverse of volume at constant temperature and number of moles:?

1. Straight-line parallel to the x-axis
2. Straight-line parallel to the y-axis
3. Straight-line passing through the origin
4. None of them

C

Q.17: If both temperature and volume of a gas are doubled, the pressure:?

1. Cannot be predicated
2. Remain unchanged
3. Is reduce to ½
4. Is doubled

C

Q.18: In a closed vessel of 1000 cm³, H₂ gas is heated from 27°C to 127°C. Which statement is not correct??

1. The rate of collision increases
2. The pressure of gas increases
3. The energy of gas molecules increases
4. The number of moles of gas increases

D

Q.19: Which one is the form of a general gas equation??

1. PV = nRT
2. P₁V₁/T₁ = P₂V₂/T₂
3. PV = RT
4. All of these

D

Q.20: The sudden expansion of the gas from high pressure towards the low-pressure causes??

1. Increase of temperature
2. Decrease in temperature
3. Greater number of confusions among the molecules
4. Decrease of velocities of gas molecules

B

Q.21: The molecules of gas show more deviation from ideal behavior at low temperature, because;?

1. Kinetic energies
2. Densities of the gases increase
3. Collision become less frequent
4. Attractive force dominate at low temperature

D

Q.22: Hydrogen bonding is extensively present in protein which forms the spiral. The hydrogen bond being produced is between.?

1. Nitrogen and the hydrogen atom
2. Carbon and the hydrogen atom
3. Oxygen and the hydrogen atom
4. All of these possible

C

Q.23: Ice occupies more space than liquid water:?

1. 10%
2. 11%
3. 12%
4. 9%

D

Q.24: The boiling point of H₂O is 100°C while that of C₂H₅OH is 78.5°C. The reason is that:?

1. H₂O molecules are small-sized
2. The bond angles at the oxygen atom are different
3. C₂H₅ group is electron-donating
4. The number of hydrogen bonds per H₂O molecule is greater than C₂H₅-OH

D

Q.25: The distillation of a solution under reduced pressure is called??

1. Fractional distillation
2. Destructive distillation
3. Distillation
4. Vacuum distillation

D

Q.26: Which of the liquid has the lowest vapor pressure??

1. Br₂
2. H₂O
3. Ether
4. C₂H₅ – OH

B

Q.27: The boiling point of a compound is mostly raised by:?

1. Dipole induced dipole interaction
2. London dispersion forces
3. Intermolecular hydrogen bonding
4. Intramolecular Hydrogen bonding

C

Q.28: The number of CI ions per unit cell of NaCl are:?

1. 6
2. 4
3. 2
4. 8

B

Q.29: The crystal of diamond is:?

1. Ionic
2. Molecular
3. Covalent
4. Metallic

C

Q.30: The crystals formed due to London forces of interaction are:?

1. Ionic
2. Covalent
3. Molecular
4. Metallic

C

Q.31: Which one is false for evaporation:?

1. Surface phenomenon
2. Continous
3. Exothermic
4. Cause Cooling

C

Q.32: The forces which are present between the ions and water molecules are known as:?

1. Dipole induced dipole forces
2. Ion dipole forces
3. Dipole-Dipole forces
4. London dispersion forces

B

Q.33: The conversion of vapours back into their liquid state is called______.?

1. Crystallization
2. Evaporation
3. Vapourization
4. Condensation

D

Q.34: The attractive forces between the partially positive end of one molecule and partial negative end of other molecules are called:?

1. Dipole-Dipole forces
2. Ion Dipole-Dipole forces
3. London dispersion forces
4. Debye forces

A

Q.35: Which substance shows anisotropic behaviour in electrical conductivity??

1. Diamond
2. Graphite
3. KCl
4. Ice

B

Q.36: Molar heat of vaporization of water is:?

1. 40.7 kJ/mole
2. 40.7 J/mole
3. 40.7 cal/mole
4. 40.7 kcal/mole

A

Q.37: Ice is _____ crystal.?

1. Metallic
2. Molecular
3. Covalent
4. Ionic

B

Q.38: The number of amino acid units for each turn of helix, on average are:?

1. 21
2. 23
3. 25
4. 27

D

Q.39: Which solids does not contain covalent bonds??

1. Copper
2. Diamond
3. Graphite
4. Ice

A

Q.40: Plastics are amorphous solids and:?

1. Have sharp melting points
2. Undergo clean cleavage when cut with knife
3. Do not undergo clean cleavage
4. Possess oderly arrangement over long distances

C